MLB Rule--Put Out at First

[arkmark]

Saw this in a game this past weekend and could not hear the explanation, if any, from the announcing crew.

Batter hits the ball, fielded by the third baseman.

Throw to first is in time but pulls the first baseman off the bag.  No tag is made.

Runner passes first but fails to touch the bag.

First base looks at the ump who makes no call.

First baseman steps on first and looks at the ump.  No call is made.

First baseman walks over to the batter who is returning to the bag and tags him.  Ump calls the out.

Question is, why would the batter, having missed the base, not have  been called out when the first baseman stepped on the bag?  A play on a hitter at first base is about the same as a force out.  If the defensive player in possession of the ball makes contact with the bag before the runner (batter) gains possession of the bag an out is made.  To me the no calls made no sense?

[bsking]

He should have been called out on the forceout I think.  I'd bet it ws just such a screwy play the ump got confused.

[LVW]

Its the same principle as when a batter misses 1st and goes on to 2nd, 3rd, or home. Once the batter passes 1st there is no longer a force out at play so you have to either tag the runner or do an appeal play to get the out.

[bsking]

Its the same principle as when a batter misses 1st and goes on to 2nd, 3rd, or home. Once the batter passes 1st there is no longer a force out at play so you have to either tag the runner or do an appeal play to get the out.

If a runner misses a base it is a force out at the base he missed.

[ErieHog]

Secondary thought;  which way did the runner turn?

If he turns towards second base, inside, the ball is still live, and a tag has to be made because he hasn't left the basepath technically.  If he turns away,  like a runner is supposed to,  it becomes a dead ball?

I'm just speculating here.

[LVW]

If he has "passed" the base, he has failed to touch it, but is considered to have touched it until there is an appeal against his failure to touch.  That's directly from the Jaska/Roder rules of baseball manual that's endorsed by MLB umpires.

[arkmark]

Secondary thought;  which way did the runner turn?

If he turns towards second base, inside, the ball is still live, and a tag has to be made because he hasn't left the basepath technically.  If he turns away,  like a runner is supposed to,  it becomes a dead ball?

I'm just speculating here.

Runner made the proper turn away from second in returning to the bag.

[arkmark]

If he has "passed" the base, he has failed to touch it, but is considered to have touched it until there is an appeal against his failure to touch.  That's directly from the Jaska/Roder rules of baseball manual that's endorsed by MLB umpires.

I would agree with this if it is the more typical missed bag situation like a man on base advances from first to third (safely) but missed second.  Then the pitcher would assume the mound and notify the ump that an appeal at second is being made, toss the ball to the second baseman who tags the bag and the runner at third would be called out.  But in your explanation if the play is at first, as in this situation, an assumption of having touched the bag, would give the runner a free pass to return to first.  Once he returns and does not advance there would be no appeal available because he safely reached the only bag he ran to.
I think I have to agree with bsking that the force at first remains in play unless the runner can get back to the bag before the first baseman touches it.  Ump should have called the out.

[LVW]

I would agree with this if it is the more typical missed bag situation like a man on base advances from first to third (safely) but missed second.  Then the pitcher would assume the mound and notify the ump that an appeal at second is being made, toss the ball to the second baseman who tags the bag and the runner at third would be called out.  But in your explanation if the play is at first, as in this situation, an assumption of having touched the bag, would give the runner a free pass to return to first.  Once he returns and does not advance there would be no appeal available because he safely reached the only bag he ran to.
I think I have to agree with bsking that the force at first remains in play unless the runner can get back to the bag before the first baseman touches it.  Ump should have called the out.

It's not MY explanation, it's THE explanation; I quoted straight from the handbook the MLB umps use.

[bsking]

If he has "passed" the base, he has failed to touch it, but is considered to have touched it until there is an appeal against his failure to touch.  That's directly from the Jaska/Roder rules of baseball manual that's endorsed by MLB umpires.

But he was never considered to touch it.  The ump knew he missed it the whole time.

[LVW]

But he was never considered to touch it. 

According to his explanation:

Runner passes first but fails to touch the bag.

and what the MLB umpires manual says..............he was.

[bsking]

According to his explanation:and what the MLB umpires manual says..............he was.

Your explantion is that the player must be tagged because he was considered to touch the base.  But he wasn't.  Thus a force should have been called.

[LVW]

Your explantion is that the player must be tagged because he was considered to touch the base. 

OR DO AN APPEAL PLAY to get the out.